101 Exam Preparation Material with New 101 Dumps Questions

101 2024 Training With 240 QA's

NEW QUESTION # 112
Which WOM feature replaces a long byte pattern, such as "100000111000110101", with a shorter reference tothe pattern?

• A. Symmetric adaptive compression
• B. Bandwidth allocation
• C. Application protocol acceleration
• D. TCP optimization
• E. Symmetric data deduplication

Answer: E

NEW QUESTION # 113
A BIG-IP has the following objects configured: A SNAT pool with 2 members:

A virtual server at 150.10.30.30:80 that is associated with both the SNAT pool and the load balancing pool. If a client at IP address 200.10.10.10 initiates a connection to the virtual server, what will the source IP address be in the packets sent to the chosen pool member?

• A. 200.10.10.10
• B. It could be any of the addresses of the members of the load balancing pool.
• C. 10.10.1.10
• D. 150.10.30.30
• E. 150.10.33.33
• F. 10.10.1.33

Answer: F

NEW QUESTION # 114
A customer says his business wouldn't benefit from buying ARX because it already has block based storagevirtualization in place. Is he right? Why or why not?

• A. No. ARX allows customers to implement storage tiering benefits, but block based storage virtualization doesnot
• B. Yes. Block based storage virtualization is just another name for file virtualization
• C. Yes. Block based storage virtualization offers the same functionality as ARX's file virtualization, although ituses slightly different technology.
• D. No. Both technologies attempt to solve similar problems, but only the ARX allows the customer to havevisibility into their data and apply business policy at the file level. Block based virtualization has no visibilityinto the type of data.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 115
It is common for free storage space to exist somewhere in a business network that is not easy for storageadministrators to utilize. What solution can the ARX provide in this situation?

• A. The ARX identifies the exact location of the free storage, which allows network administrators to targetthose locations when provisioning additional storage
• B. The ARX allows the customer to pool storage from anywhere within the enterprise and
  capacity balance theoverflow across devices
• C. The ARX extends the capacity of each server by 10-15, through intelligent file virtualization
• D. The ARX uses the extra storage for transaction logs and index files

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 116
Why would an administrator capture monitor traffic between a BIG-IP and servers?

• A. Only client traffic may be captured; monitor traffic may not be captured.
• B. If client traffic to servers was failing, viewing and analyzing monitor traffic would determine the reason.
• C. If a client were having difficulty logging into a load-balanced SSH server, viewing and analyzing the connection process would determine the reason.
• D. Viewing monitor traffic could help the administrator to define a more robust monitor.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 117
Flow login allows for more granular protection of login and logout URLs within web applications. Which of the following are components of flow login? (Choose three.)

• A. Access validation
• B. Attack signatures
• C. Login pages
• D. Login URLs
• E. Schema

Answer: A,C,D

NEW QUESTION # 118
Which statement accurately describes the difference between two load balancing modes specified as
"member" and "node"?

• A. Load balancing options referencing "nodes" are available only when the pool members are defined for the "any" port.
• B. When the load balancing choice references "node", priority group activation is unavailable.
• C. There is no difference; the two terms are referenced for backward compatibility purposes.
• D. When the load balancing choice references "node", the addresses' parameters are used to make the load balancing choice rather than the member's parameters.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 119
The VIPRION provides hot-pluggable capabilities for which four of these types of hardware?
(Choose four.)

• A. CompactFlash
• B. Fan trays
• C. Performance blades
• D. LCD displays
• E. Memory
• F. Power supplies

Answer: B,C,E,F

Explanation:
The VIPRION provides hot-pluggable capabilities for Fan trays, Memory, Power supplies, and Performance blades

NEW QUESTION # 120
There are many user roles configurable on the BIG-IP ASM System. Which of the following user roles have access to make changes to ASM policies? (Choose 3)

• A. Operator
• B. Web Application Security Editor
• C. Administrator
• D. Guest
• E. Web Application Security Administrator

Answer: B,C,E

NEW QUESTION # 121
An administrator suspects that a BIG IP appliance is experiencing performing issue due to spikes in CPU usage checks the performance issues does to spikes in CPU usage checks the performance report in the BIG-IP UI on CPU spikes are evident in the graphs. Which section in the BIG IP UI can the administrator check to troubleshoot the issue further?

• A. Statistics > Utilization
• B. System . Utilization
• C. System > Services
• D. Statics > Dashboard

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 122
In most cases, F5 recommends using round robin load balancing.

• A. True
• B. False

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
Using round robin load balancing is recommended when Server is not so strong and using easy WebApplication.

NEW QUESTION # 123
Why is BIG-IP ASM ideally suited to protect against layer 7 attacks, including HTTP and HTTPS/SSL traffic, when compared to an intrusion prevention system (IPS)?

• A. An IPS only focus op operating system attacks; it doesn't understand what application are in the network
• B. An IPS can only look at overall traffic patterns; it doesn't understand what applications are in the network
• C. An intrusion prevention system (IPS) is base on Packet Filtering
• D. An IPS doesn't have the visibility into HTTPS traffic. it doesn't understand what applications are in the network.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

NEW QUESTION # 124
Using file virtualization, what can the ARX do for customers?

• A. All of the above.
• B. Move individual files or entire file systems in real-time without disruption of down-time.
• C. Match data to the most appropriate tier of storage (e.g. critical data on tier 1 storage; older data on secondary storage tier).
• D. Automate many storage management tasks such as storage tiering, dynamic capacity balancing, and no disruptive data migration.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION # 125
When using SNAT, which additional IP addresses will the BIG-IP system change? (Choose two.)

• A. The destination IP address on the pool member to BIG-IP response packet.
• B. The source IP address on the BIG-IP to client response packet.
• C. The source IP address on the client to BIG-IP request packet.
• D. The destination IP address on the BIG-IP to pool member request packet.
• E. The source IP address on the BIG-IP to pool member request packet.
• F. The destination IP address on the BIG-IP to client response packet.

Answer: E,F

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

NEW QUESTION # 126
In IPv4 the loopback IP is 127 0.0.1. or IPv6, what is the loopback address?

• A. : : 1
• B. FEBO::1
• C. FF8Q 0.0 : :1
• D. 2001 :: 127 : : 1

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION # 127
An LTM has the 3 virtual servers, 2 SNATs, four self IP addresses defined, and the networks shown in the exhibit. Selected options for each object are shown below. Settings not shown are at their defaults. Assume port exhaustion has not been reached.

A connection attempt is made with a source IP and port of 10.10.100.50:2222 and a destination IP and port of 10.10.2.10:80. When the request is processed, what will be the source and destination IP addresses?

• A. The request will be droped.
• B. Source IP: 10.10.2.102; Destination IP 10.10.2.10
• C. Source IP: 10.10.2.1; Destination IP: pool in the 172.16/16 network C
• D. Source IP: 10.10.2.1; Destination IP: 10.10.2.10
• E. Source IP: Either 172.16.20.50 or 192.168.10.50; Destination IP: 10.10.2.10

Answer: E

NEW QUESTION # 128
What is NOT a benefit of using a SNAT?

• A. No changes are needed on the servers
• B. Fail open is easy to add
• C. ASM can be deployed easily
• D. Higher performance than other configuration

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 129
A virtual server is defined per the charts. The last five client connections were to members C, D, A, B, B.
Given the conditions shown in the above graphic, if a client with IP address 205.12.45.52 opens a connection to the virtual server, which member will be used for the connection?

• A. 172.16.20.4:80
• B. 172.16.20.3:80
• C. 172.16.20.1:80
• D. 172.16.20.5:80
• E. 172.16.20.2:80

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION # 130
A virtual server is listening at 10.10.1.100:any and has the following iRule associated with it:

If a user connects to 10.10.1.100 and port 22, which pool will receive the request?

• A. Unknown. The pool cannot be determined from the information provided.
• B. None. The request will be dropped.
• C. ftp pool
• D. telnet pool

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:

NEW QUESTION # 131
Application trends and drivers that increase the need for application security are:

• A. Intelligent Browsers
• B. Webification
• C. Targeted attacks
• D. All the above

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 132
Click the Exhibit Button an LTM has the 3 virtual servers, a SNAT defined, four self IP addresses defined and the networks shown in the exhibit. Selected options for each object are shown below. Settings not shown are at their defaults.

A connection attempt is made with a source IP and port of 10.20.100.50:80 and a destination IP and port of
10.10.2.10:80. When the request is processed, what will be the source and destination IP addresses?

• A. The request will be dropped.
• B. Source IP: Either 172.16.20.50 or 192.168.10.50; Destination IP: 10.10.2010
• C. Source IP: 10.10.2.1; Destination IP: 10.10.2.10
• D. Source IP: 10.20.100.50; Destination IP: 10.10.2.10

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 133
Which is NOT a function of ASM?

• A. Parameter value enforcement
• B. Attack signature enforcement
• C. HTTP protocol enforcement
• D. Network security

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

NEW QUESTION # 134
ASM can detect Layer 7 DoS attacks by which four ways of monitoring:

• A. Deep Packet inspection
• B. Monitoring BIG-IP CPU utilization
• C. Monitoring for a % change in server latency or TPS
• D. Monitoring for a % change in transactions per second per URL
• E. Monitoring for a threshold of increased server latency or TPS
• F. Monitoring ASM policy builder performance
• G. Monitoring for a threshold of increased number of transactions per second per URL

Answer: C,D,E,G

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

NEW QUESTION # 135
Identifying users by their IP address is a sufficient method of performing authentication andauthorization.

• A. True
• B. False

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 136
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F5 101 (Application Delivery Fundamentals) Exam is a certification exam offered by F5 Networks. 101 exam is designed to test the knowledge and skills of professionals who are interested in working with F5 products in the application delivery network (ADN) space. 101 exam covers a wide range of topics including networking concepts, application delivery fundamentals, and F5 product knowledge.

F5 101 exam is a foundational exam that serves as a prerequisite for other F5 certification exams. It is an online, proctored exam that consists of 80 multiple-choice questions that must be completed within 90 minutes. 101 exam is available in multiple languages and can be taken at any time. Passing the F5 101 exam is a significant achievement that demonstrates a candidate's proficiency in the fundamental concepts and technologies related to application delivery networking. By passing the exam, candidates can demonstrate their ability to design, deploy, and manage F5 solutions and products, which can lead to greater career opportunities and increased earning potential in the IT industry.

F5 101 (Application Delivery Fundamentals) Certification Exam is a globally recognized certification that validates the knowledge and skills required to design, implement, and manage application delivery networks. 101 exam is designed to test the fundamental concepts of application delivery, including the OSI model, HTTP, SSL, DNS, and TCP/IP. Application Delivery Fundamentals Exam certification is intended for network administrators, system engineers, and application developers who want to expand their knowledge and expertise in application delivery.

 

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