2025 Latest CCSP DUMPS Q&As with Explanations Verified & Correct Answers

CCSP dumps Exam Material with 827 Questions

To be eligible for the ISC CCSP Certification Exam, candidates must have at least five years of cumulative, paid, full-time work experience in information technology, including three years of experience in information security and one year of experience in one or more of the six CCSP domains. Alternatively, candidates can have a bachelor's degree in a related field and four years of experience in information technology, including three years of experience in information security and one year of experience in one or more of the six CCSP domains.

 

NEW QUESTION # 459
Which of the following involves assigning an opaque value to sensitive data fields to protect confidentiality?
Response:

• A. Masking
• B. Obfuscation
• C. Anonymization
• D. Tokenization

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 460
When data discovery is undertaken, three main approaches or strategies are commonly used to determine what the type of data, its format, and composition are for the purposes of classification.
Which of the following is NOT one of the three main approaches to data discovery?

• A. Content analysis
• B. Metadata
• C. Hashing
• D. Labels

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
Hashing involves taking a block of data and, through the use of a one-way operation, producing a fixed-size value that can be used for comparison with other data. It is used primarily for protecting data and allowing for rapid comparison when matching data values such as passwords. Labels involve looking for header information or other categorizations of data to determine its type and possible classifications. Metadata involves looking at information attributes of the data, such as creator, application, type, and so on, in determining classification. Content analysis involves examining the actual data itself for its composition and classification level.

NEW QUESTION # 461
What does static application security testing (SAST) offer as a tool to the testers that makes it unique compared to other common security testing methodologies?

• A. Production system scanning
• B. Source code access
• C. Injection attempts
• D. Live testing

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
Static application security testing (SAST) is conducted against offline systems with previous knowledge of them, including their source code. Live testing is not part of static testing but rather is associated with dynamic testing. Production system scanning is not appropriate because static testing is done against offline systems.
Injection attempts are done with many different types of testing and are not unique to one particular type. It is therefore not the best answer to the question.

NEW QUESTION # 462
Which of the following represents a minimum guaranteed resource within a cloud environment for the cloud customer?

• A. Provision
• B. Reservation
• C. Share
• D. Limit

Answer: B

Explanation:
A reservation is a minimum resource that is guaranteed to a customer within a cloud environment. Within a cloud, a reservation can pertain to the two main aspects of computing:
memory and processor. With a reservation in place, the cloud provider guarantees that a cloud customer will always have at minimum the necessary resources available to power on and operate any of their services.

NEW QUESTION # 463
Data center and operations design traditionally takes a tiered, topological approach.
Which of the following standards is focused on that approach and is prevalently used throughout the industry?

• A. BICSI
• B. NFPA
• C. IDCA
• D. Uptime Institute

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
The Uptime Institute publishes the most widely known and used standard for data center topologies and tiers.
The National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) publishes a broad range of fire safety and design standards for many different types of facilities. Building Industry Consulting Services International (BICSI) issues certifications for data center cabling. The International Data Center Authority (IDCA) offers the Infinity Paradigm, which takes a macro-level approach to data center design.

NEW QUESTION # 464
Each of the following are dependencies that must be considered when reviewing the BIA after cloud migration except:

• A. The cloud provider's resellers
• B. The cloud provider's vendors
• C. The cloud provider's suppliers
• D. The cloud provider's utilities

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
The cloud provider's resellers are a marketing and sales mechanism, not an operational dependency that could affect the security of a cloud customer.

NEW QUESTION # 465
What is the biggest negative to leasing space in a data center versus building or maintain your own?

• A. Regulation
• B. Certification
• C. Control
• D. Costs

Answer: C

Explanation:
When leasing space in a data center, an organization will give up a large degree of control as to how it is built and maintained, and instead must conform to the policies and procedures of the owners and operators of the data center.

NEW QUESTION # 466
Digital investigations have adopted many of the same methodologies and protocols as other types of criminal or scientific inquiries.
What term pertains to the application of scientific norms and protocols to digital investigations?

• A. Investigative
• B. Methodological
• C. Forensics
• D. Scientific

Answer: C

Explanation:
Forensics refers to the application of scientific methods and protocols to the investigation of crimes. Although forensics has traditionally been applied to well-known criminal proceedings and investigations, the term equally applies to digital investigations and methods. Although the other answers provide similar-sounding terms and ideas, none is the appropriate answer in this case.

NEW QUESTION # 467
Which jurisdiction lacks specific and comprehensive privacy laws at a national or top level of legal authority?

• A. European Union
• B. United States
• C. Germany
• D. Russia

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The United States lacks a single comprehensive law at the federal level addressing data security and privacy, but there are multiple federal laws that deal with different industries.

NEW QUESTION # 468
Which of the following roles would be responsible for managing memberships in federations and the use and integration of federated services?

• A. Cloud service integrator
• B. Cloud service business manager
• C. Inter-cloud provider
• D. Cloud service administrator

Answer: C

Explanation:
The inter-cloud provider is responsible for peering with other cloud services and providers, as well as overseeing and managing federations and federated services. A cloud service administrator is responsible for testing, monitoring, and securing cloud services, as well as providing usage reporting and dealing with service problems. The cloud service integrator is responsible for connecting existing systems and services with a cloud. The cloud service business manager is responsible for overseeing the billing, auditing, and purchasing of cloud services.

NEW QUESTION # 469
Which cloud service category brings with it the most expensive startup costs, but also the lowest costs for ongoing support and maintenance staff?
Response:

• A. DaaS
• B. IaaS
• C. PaaS
• D. SaaS

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 470
The Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) publishes the Notorious Nine, a list of common threats to organizations participating in cloud computing.
According to the CSA, what aspect of managed cloud services makes the threat of malicious insiders so alarming?
Response:

• A. Metered service
• B. Flexibility
• C. Multitenancy
• D. Scalability

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION # 471
Where is an XML firewall most commonly deployed in the environment?

• A. Between the presentation and application layers
• B. Between the IPS and firewall
• C. Between the application and data layers
• D. Between the firewall and application server

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
XML firewalls are most commonly deployed in line between the firewall and application server to validate XML code before it reaches the application.

NEW QUESTION # 472
When using an Infrastructure as a Service solution, what is a key benefit provided to the customer?

• A. The ability to scale up infrastructure services based on projected usage.
• B. Usage is metered and priced on the basis of units consumed.
• C. Increased energy and cooling system efficiencies.
• D. Cost of ownership is transferred.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 473
Just like the risk management process, the BCDR planning process has a defined sequence of steps and processes to follow to ensure the production of a comprehensive and successful plan.
Which of the following is the correct sequence of steps for a BCDR plan?

• A. Define scope, gather requirements, assess risk, implement
• B. Define scope, gather requirements, implement, assess risk
• C. Gather requirements, define scope, implement, assess risk
• D. Gather requirements, define scope, assess risk, implement

Answer: A

Explanation:
The correct sequence for a BCDR plan is to define the scope, gather requirements based on the scope, assess overall risk, and implement the plan. The other sequences provided are not in the correct order.

NEW QUESTION # 474
What is the primary security mechanism used to protect SOAP and REST APIs?
Response:

• A. XML firewalls
• B. WAFs
• C. Firewalls
• D. Encryption

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 475
A cloud provider is looking to provide a higher level of assurance to current and potential cloud customers about the design and effectiveness of their security controls.
Which of the following audit reports would the cloud provider choose as the most appropriate to accomplish this goal?
Response:

• A. SAS-70
• B. SOC 1
• C. SOC 2
• D. SOC 3

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 476
Which type of testing tends to produce the best and most comprehensive results for discovering system vulnerabilities?

• A. Pen
• B. Static
• C. Vulnerability
• D. Dynamic

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 477
What is the intellectual property protection for a useful manufacturing innovation?

• A. Trade secret
• B. Trademark
• C. patent
• D. Copyright

Answer: C

Explanation:
Patents protect processes (as well as inventions, new plantlife, and decorative patterns). The other answers listed are answers to other questions.

NEW QUESTION # 478
All of the following are techniques to enhance the portability of cloud data, in order to minimize the potential of vendor lock-in except:

• A. Ensure favorable contract terms to support portability
• B. Use DRM and DLP solutions widely throughout the cloud operation
• C. Ensure there are no physical limitations to moving
• D. Avoid proprietary data formats

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
DRM and DLP are used for increased authentication/access control and egress monitoring, respectively, and would actually decrease portability instead of enhancing it.

NEW QUESTION # 479
You are in charge of creating the BCDR plan and procedures for your organization. Your organization has its production environment hosted by a cloud provider, and you have appropriate protections in place.
Which of the following is a significant consideration for your BCDR backup?

• A. Access to the servers where the BCDR backup is stored
• B. Enough personnel at the BCDR recovery site to ensure proper operations
• C. Forensic analysis capabilities
• D. Good cryptographic key management

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 480
Many different common threats exist against web-exposed services and applications. One attack involves attempting to leverage input fields to execute queries in a nested fashion that is unintended by the developers.
What type of attack is this?

• A. Injection
• B. Cross-site request forgery
• C. Missing function-level access control
• D. Cross-site scripting

Answer: A

Explanation:
An injection attack is where a malicious actor sends commands or other arbitrary data through input and data fields with the intent of having the application or system execute the code as part of its normal processing and queries. This can trick an application into exposing data that is not intended or authorized to be exposed, or it can potentially allow an attacker to gain insight into configurations or security controls.
Missing function-level access control exists where an application only checks for authorization during the initial login process and does not further validate with each function call. Cross-site request forgery occurs when an attack forces an authenticated user to send forged requests to an application running under their own access and credentials. Cross-site scripting occurs when an attacker is able to send untrusted data to a user's browser without going through validation processes.

NEW QUESTION # 481
Which of the cloud cross-cutting aspects relates to the ability for a cloud customer to easily remove their applications and data from a cloud environment?

• A. Interoperability
• B. Availability
• C. Reversibility
• D. Portability

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reversibility is the ability for a cloud customer to easily remove their applications or data from a cloud environment, as well as to ensure that all traces of their applications or data have been securely removed per a predefined agreement with the cloud provider.

NEW QUESTION # 482
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