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CCSP Practice Exam Tests Latest Updated on Oct-2025 [Q382-Q400]

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CCSP Practice Exam Tests Latest Updated on Oct-2025

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NEW QUESTION # 382
Which component of ITIL involves planning for the restoration of services after an unexpected outage or incident?

  • A. Configuration management
  • B. Problem management
  • C. Continuity management
  • D. Availability management

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
Continuity management (or business continuity management) is focused on planning for the successful restoration of systems or services after an unexpected outage, incident, or disaster. Problem management is focused on identifying and mitigating known problems and deficiencies before they occur. Availability management is focused on making sure system resources, processes, personnel, and toolsets are properly allocated and secured to meet SLA requirements. Configuration management tracks and maintains detailed information about all IT components within an organization.


NEW QUESTION # 383
Which of the following is the best example of a key component of regulated PII?

  • A. Audit rights of subcontractors
  • B. Items that should be implemented
  • C. Mandatory breach reporting
  • D. PCI DSS

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
Mandatory breach reporting is the best example of regulated PII components. The rest are generally considered components of contractual PII.


NEW QUESTION # 384
Because of multitenancy, specific risks in the public cloud that don't exist in the other cloud service models include all the following except:

  • A. DoS/DDoS
  • B. Escalation of privilege
  • C. Information bleed
  • D. Risk of loss/disclosure due to legal seizures

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
DoS/DDoS threats and risks are not unique to the public cloud model.


NEW QUESTION # 385
Which of the following roles is responsible for creating cloud components and the testing and validation of services?

  • A. Inter-cloud provider
  • B. Cloud auditor
  • C. Cloud service broker
  • D. Cloud service developer

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
The cloud service developer is responsible for developing and creating cloud components and services, as well as for testing and validating services.


NEW QUESTION # 386
Which of the following would make it more likely that a cloud provider would be unwilling to satisfy specific certification requirements?

  • A. Resource pooling
  • B. Multitenancy
  • C. Virtualization
  • D. Regulation

Answer: B

Explanation:
With cloud providers hosting a number of different customers, it would be impractical for them to pursue additional certifications based on the needs of a specific customer. Cloud environments are built to a common denominator to serve the greatest number of customers, and especially within a public cloud model, it is not possible or practical for a cloud provider to alter their services for specific customer demands.


NEW QUESTION # 387
With an application hosted in a cloud environment, who could be the recipient of an eDiscovery order?

  • A. The cloud provider
  • B. Users
  • C. Both the cloud provider and cloud customer
  • D. The cloud customer

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
Either the cloud customer or the cloud provider could receive an eDiscovery order, and in almost all circumstances they would need to work together to ensure compliance.


NEW QUESTION # 388
Which of the following service capabilities gives the cloud customer the most control over resources and configurations?

  • A. Infrastructure
  • B. Platform
  • C. Desktop
  • D. Software

Answer: A

Explanation:
The infrastructure service capability gives the cloud customer substantial control in provisioning and configuring resources, including processing, storage, and network resources.


NEW QUESTION # 389
Which of these characteristics of a virtualized network adds risks to the cloud environment?

  • A. Scalability
  • B. Self-service
  • C. Redundancy
  • D. Pay-per-use

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 390
When using an Infrastructure as a Service solution, what is a key benefit provided to the customer?

  • A. Increased energy and cooling system efficiencies.
  • B. The ability to scale up infrastructure services based on projected usage.
  • C. Cost of ownership is transferred.
  • D. Usage is metered and priced on the basis of units consumed.

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 391
What is the federal agency that accepts applications for new patents?

  • A. SEC
  • B. OSHA
  • C. USPTO
  • D. USDA

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 392
Which regulatory system pertains to the protection of healthcare data?

  • A. HAS
  • B. HITECH
  • C. HIPAA
  • D. HFCA

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) sets stringent requirements in the United States for the protection of healthcare records.


NEW QUESTION # 393
What must SOAP rely on for security?

  • A. Encryption
  • B. TLS
  • C. Tokenization
  • D. SSL

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
Simple Object Access Protocol (SOAP) uses Extensible Markup Language (XML) for passing data, and it must rely on the encryption of those data packages for security.


NEW QUESTION # 394
Which ITIL component is focused on anticipating predictable problems and ensuring that configurations and operations are in place to prevent these problems from ever occurring?

  • A. Continuity management
  • B. Configuration management
  • C. Problem management
  • D. Availability management

Answer: C

Explanation:
Problem management is focused on identifying and mitigating known problems and deficiencies before they are able to occur, as well as on minimizing the impact of incidents that cannot be prevented. Continuity management (or business continuity management) is focused on planning for the successful restoration of systems or services after an unexpected outage, incident, or disaster. Availability management is focused on making sure system resources, processes, personnel, and toolsets are properly allocated and secured to meet SLA requirements. Configuration management tracks and maintains detailed information about all IT components within an organization.


NEW QUESTION # 395
Which of the following would probably best aid an organization in deciding whether to migrate from a legacy environment to a particular cloud provider?

  • A. Rate sheets comparing a cloud provider to other cloud providers
  • B. Cloud provider offers to provide engineering assistance during the migration
  • C. SLA satisfaction surveys from other (current and past) cloud customers
  • D. The cost/benefit measure of closing the organization's relocation site (hot site/warm site) and using the cloud for disaster recovery instead

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 396
GAAPs are created and maintained by which organization?

  • A. ISO
  • B. AICPA
  • C. PCI Council
  • D. ISO/IEC

Answer: B

Explanation:
The AICPA is the organization responsible for generating and maintaining what are the Generally Accepted Accounting Practices in the United States.


NEW QUESTION # 397
Which of the following is not one of the defined security controls domains within the Cloud Controls Matrix, published by the Cloud Security Alliance?
Response:

  • A. Financial
  • B. Mobile security
  • C. Identity and access management
  • D. Human resources

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 398
Three central concepts define what type of data and information an organization is responsible for pertaining to eDiscovery.
Which of the following are the three components that comprise required disclosure?

  • A. Possession, custody, control
  • B. Possession, ownership, control
  • C. Ownership, use, creation
  • D. Control, custody, use

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
Data that falls under the purview of an eDiscovery request is that which is in the possession, custody, or control of the organization. Although this is an easy concept in a traditional data center, it can be difficult to distinguish who actually possesses and controls the data in a cloud environment due to multitenancy and resource pooling. Although these options provide similar-sounding terms, they are ultimately incorrect.


NEW QUESTION # 399
The Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) publishes the Notorious Nine, a list of common threats to organizations participating in cloud computing. A cloud customer that does not perform sufficient due diligence can suffer harm if the cloud provider they've selected goes out of business.
What do we call this problem?
Response:

  • A. Unscaled
  • B. Vendor incapacity
  • C. Vendor lock-in
  • D. Vendor lock-out

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 400
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The CCSP certification is widely recognized by employers and is considered as one of the most prestigious cloud security certifications available. Certified Cloud Security Professional certification is an excellent way for professionals to demonstrate their knowledge and skills in cloud security and can help them advance their careers in this field. Certified Cloud Security Professional certification is also an excellent way for organizations to demonstrate their commitment to cloud security and to ensure that their employees have the skills and knowledge needed to secure their cloud-based environments.

 

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